We know that bosons need an overall symmetric wavefunction. So is it possible for a boson to have an anti-symmetric spatial wavefunction and an anti-symmetric spin wavefunction? Such that upon particle position exchange the parity of the equation is still a +? Is this possible? Because to me this makes sense, but if I have 2 of the same bosons in the same state here then I get a wavefunction of 0, which goes against the fact that multiple bosons can occupy the same state. Hence this boson seems to display some sort of behaviour that is typical of a fermion, hence the title of my question. Wher ..read more

I know this question may seem very odd for most of you. Also I hope it doesn't fall under the banned "Do my homework" type. I'm not looking for an answer I just want advice. Also sorry for not directly including the images; they were too big and I didn't want them to lose quality. I'm in an internship and my tutor wants me to learn how to use ADINA, which is a finite element analysis software. I am required to derive the formula ADINA uses to represent internal pressure in curved pipe-beam elements. It is the one at the very bottom of page 159 in the Theory and Modeling Guide.  Here is a ..read more

People say a bigger camera sensor is better for light performance as the photo sensors are bigger and hence let in more light. But couldn't you just let the same light in and focus it down onto the smaller size of a smaller image sensor ..read more

If I want to convert a laser's irradiance of 10^20 W/cm2 into a volume energy density, do I just divide it by the speed of light c ..read more

I came across this doubt multiple times while studying thermodynamics. Aren't both temperature and internal energy fundamentally due to the kinetic energy of the molecules? An even crazier doubt of mine is that pressure is also in some sense due to the kinetic energy of the molecules (which on collision with walls of the container transfer momentum and in turn cause pressure). But why are pressure, temperature and internal energy not the same? Why are we treating them as different thermodynamic state variables? This doubt prevents me understanding other concepts in thermodynamics. For example ..read more

Hello is there a good mathematical derivation of the formula that the time derivative of the basis vector of the rotating frame with respect to inertial frame of reference is (omega cross position vector) because I saw the derivation in hibbler dynamics book but not satisfied , also i have seen this answer Derivation of the time-derivative in a rotating frame of refrence ..read more

In the dispersive readout of a qubit coupled to a resonator, a microwave pulse is applied to the resonator and the phase shift of the reflected pulse is used to determine the resonant frequency of the resonator, which depends on the state of the qubit. I understand how the state of the qubit affects the resonant frequency of the resonator, but I do not understand how to relate the measured phase shift to this shifted resonant frequency. Specifically, I ask if there is an equation that relates the phase shift of a reflected microwave pulse to the resonant frequency of the resonator. I imagine t ..read more

Concerning rolling motion for a sphere (without slipping) I have read somewhere that here solving using free body diagram we can write$$F-f_r=ma_{com} \space\space\space\space(1)$$ where $a_{com}$ is acceleration attained by centre of sphere i.e its centre of mass, and F acts on centre of mass. And also $$f_r =\tau \space\space\space\space(2) $$ $\tau$ is net torque on sphere. Though i don't have any doubts regarding (2) but how come (1) is true when both the forces are not acting along same line. Is there some derivation for this if its true or it is not ..read more

ive tried my best to understand the physical why behind it with the relativistic contraction from lorenz transformation so here is what i know correct me where am wrong : The magnetic field arises from a particle's intrinsic spin and can be amplified by the motion-induced contraction of the electric field, as described by special relativity and the Lorentz transformations. This amplification occurs because the magnetic field from the particle's spin is proportional to its velocity. An analogy to this is a dancing and rotating ballerina's enhancing her angular momentum by contracting her arms t ..read more

Do entities like electrons, which are considered point particles in Classical Mechanics, actually have a definite position at a particular time (irrespective of it can be measured or not ..read more